Busy day here, but I do have a brief post up on MRSA over at Correlations if you’re looking for some reading material.

[Edited to add: Mike has a lot more new MRSA stuff here; well worth reading!]

Comments

  1. #1 McKiernan
    October 18, 2007

    So where is the evidence that methicillin resistance in MRSA
    means the resistant staph was the result of over-prescription of prior antibiotics ?

  2. #2 Tara C. Smith
    October 18, 2007

    You mean the original mutation? Or the spread of the resistance?

  3. #3 McKiernan
    October 18, 2007

    What I’m searching for, is, why cannot there be virulent strains of staph., resistant to methicillin not caused by prior antibiotic interference and, whether that contamination cannot come from exogenous sources introduced into hospital settings ?

  4. #4 McKiernan
    October 21, 2007

    Like with all the bio-science ppl coming through this blog, and no one has an answer ?

  5. #5 Dale
    October 22, 2007

    What I’m searching for, is, why cannot there be virulent strains of staph., resistant to methicillin not caused by prior antibiotic interference and, whether that contamination cannot come from exogenous sources introduced into hospital settings ?

    I don’t think its that prior antibiotics cause mutations but in the absence of antibiotic there would be no selection for the resistant bacteria to outgrowth the sensitive bacteria.

  6. #6 McKiernan
    October 23, 2007

    Thank you, Dale, its a start.

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