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Do the British count political homicides as homicides?

Dan Z wrote: Yeah, that's really odd. According to figures published in the International Journal of Epidemiology, in 1994, Northern Ireland had an adjusted homicide rate of 5.85 and Scotland was 2.24. It looks to me like the rate for...

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Tim Lambert Tim Lambert (deltoidblog AT gmail.com) is a computer scientist at the University of New South Wales.

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« John Lott's piece in the Wall Street Journal | Main | Gary Kleck responds to Tim Lambert »

Do the British count political homicides as homicides?

Category: international
Posted on: April 19, 1999 3:00 AM, by Tim Lambert

Dan Z wrote:

Yeah, that's really odd. According to figures published in the International Journal of Epidemiology, in 1994, Northern Ireland had an adjusted homicide rate of 5.85 and Scotland was 2.24. It looks to me like the rate for Northern Ireland is greater

What does "adjusted" mean here?

RD Thompson writes:

They removed all the political homicides.

Wrong. Political homicides were included. "Adjusted" refers to controlling for demographic differences --- younger people are more likely to be murdered than older people, so if you want to see if a difference is homicide rates is caused by there being fewer young people or something else, you need to adjust for the demographic difference.

Be that as it may....the fact remains that in those statistics from the British Isles, political homicides are removed from the count.

No they are not. If you look at the time-series for Scotland you can see the blip caused by the Lockerbie bombing. This terrorist bombing was included in the count.

If you have some evidence that political homicides are removed, then please present it --- surely you don't expect us to accept this remarkable claim based on your say so.

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