Posted by Molecule of the Day on June 3, 2009 A few months ago, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor anticancer drug for people, this month, one for dogs.
It is made to treat cutaneous mast cell tumors, which apparently account for about a quarter of dog cancers.
I know a lot of people drugs end up in pets, but do pet drugs ever end up crossing over into human medicine? Anyone know anything about how the decision to go after a dog-specific drug works? Just cheaper to go after?
There was a dog obesity drug that was created recently that failed when tested with humans but had passed animal tests with dogs first.
You are right that they probably would not try to create a cancer drug just for dogs.
Since all human drugs are first tested in animals and only the ones effective there make it through, you could say that all human drugs are also “pet” drugs (if you consider rats, rabbits and monkeys as potential pets)
I worked for a time in a pet store. A woman came in and bought all of our fish treatment drugs, including anti-fungals and anti-biotics. When I asked her why she was buying our entire stock, she told me these were going to be sent to another country where they have not any medical system. She said people were desperate for drugs to treat all manner of conditions. It shocked me at the time, now it just makes me sad
I know one case, the Ivermectin, It was a broad-spectrum antiparasitic agent just for animals, but actually its activity against nematodes in humans is weighty.
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